If all variables are positive, is (w/x) > (y/z)?
(1) w = y + 50
(2) x = z + 50
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(1) w = y + 50
(2) x = z + 50
[Reveal] Spoiler:
1) and 2) alone are INS.
(y+50)/(z+50) > y/z
yz +50z > yz +50y
50y > 50z
y > z
Both together are INSUFICIENT so E)
My question is, however: The first time that I worked it out, I simply did this...
If w = y + 50 , then w > y
If x = z + 50 , then x > z
Divide equations by each other:
(w > y) (x > z) = (w/x) > (x/z)
Why isn't this right?
(y+50)/(z+50) > y/z
yz +50z > yz +50y
50y > 50z
y > z
Both together are INSUFICIENT so E)
My question is, however: The first time that I worked it out, I simply did this...
If w = y + 50 , then w > y
If x = z + 50 , then x > z
Divide equations by each other:
(w > y) (x > z) = (w/x) > (x/z)
Why isn't this right?